Do folks think that consciousness matters for moral responsibility ?
Par Florian Cova le dimanche 29 août 2010, 12:30 - Philosophie Expérimentale - Lien permanent
Un post en anglais, résumant une expérience réalisée il y a un certain temps sur les liens entre conscience et responsabilité morale. [In this post, I describe the results of an experiment run a while ago about the relationship between consciousness and moral responsibility.]
Almost two months ago, Neil Levy posted on Flickers of Freedom this fascinating question: does consciousness matters (for free will / moral responsibility) ? Very soon after that, some comments asked this different (but related) question: are people's intuitions about free will / moral responsibility taking into account and influenced by whether the psychological states an action has its source are conscious or not ? (A question which is in fact different from the one that forms the title of this post : it could be that people think - at an explicit level - that consciousness matters is a necessary condition for moral responsibility - but that this belief is not coherent with their intuitions about freedom. Such dissociations are not uncommon. For example, Freiman and Nichols have a paper showing that people explicitly believes that one cannot deserve resources acquired through "brute luck" but that their intuitions about particular cases are not consistent with this belief.)
Now, I have made a year ago an experiment about this very same question. The results of this experiment have since been sleeping in a drawer, but, since some people seemed interested in running similar experiments, I think they might be interested in those.
Let me first describe what were the motivations of this experiment. The primary question was: why do so much people seem to believe that Libet's famous experiment is a threat to the existence of moral responsibility (not to mention free will) ? Let's consider that Libet's results and his interpretation are right (I don't say they are, I'll do just do "as if" for the following). What do they show? That our voluntary actions are preceded by unconscious brain states that are already "programming" this action - brain states that comes before we become aware of having the intention / will / urge to act. So what ? It is possible to accept these results and still believe in moral responsibility - for example if you consider that these very same brain states are also psychological states that exist for some seconds before becoming conscious.
And here comes the psychological puzzle: why do so many people consider that this experiment is a threat to moral responsibility ? A first option, the most obvious, is the following:
- CS: People's intuitions follow the following rule : "an agent A is morally responsible for an action B only if A was conscious of the psychological states B has its source in.
But there is another possibility. Nahmias and his colleagues have observed through experiments the following phenomenon: people are prone to answer that an agent in a deterministic universe is morally responsible as long as determinism is described in psychological terms. As soon as determinism is described in neurological terms, the great majority answer that this agent is not morally responsible. How are we to interpret these results? Nahmias offers the following hypothesis: maybe people reading a neurological description come to believe that the agent does not act upon his own mental states. Rather, his mental states are "bypassed" and he's forced to act by external forces (i.e. physical forces).
It turns out that, when it comes to folk intuitions about moral responsibility, I tend to think that people's intuitions are driven by a set of rules close to Watson's "True Self" hypothesis, or, more recently, Sripada's Deep Self model. In a nutshell: when people act on the basis of psychological states, we make a distinction between mental states that truly belong to the agent, and "shallow" mental states, that play a role in this agent's action but are not truly his own. This distinction, for example, allow us to understand sci-fi stories including hypnotic suggestions or alien possession in which we do not blame the agent for what he did, because he was acting on mental states that did not really belong to him. So, my theory is that folk intuitions dismiss moral responsibility when an agent is not acting on the basis of his "True Self", that is on the basis of mental states that are not really his own.
What about Libet's experiment? My hypothesis is then that, in this case, people's "intuitive dualism" (i.e. the fact that physical events and mental states are computed by differtent cognitive systems) lead them to consider that a neural event is not a genuine mental state, but some external force (my brain and not I) and then, that, if an agent acts on the basis of this external force, he's not morally responsible (the famous "my brain made me do it"). So we have another option:
- TS: People's intuitions follow the following rule : "an agent A is morally responsible for an action B only if B has its source on mental states that "truly belong" to A (whether they are conscious or not).
How are we to decide between CS and TS ? By running more experiments, of course. And so, I decided to test for CS, and created a group of four scenarios, that allowed me to vary two factors (consciousness and motives). All scenarios described a man living in a building meeting his new neighbor (a very beautiful woman) and deciding to help her with moving her furniture up the stairs (there is no elevator). The agent could have bad motives or good motives. In the good motives condition, people were told that he helped her only because he cared about her and wanted to help her, without any afterthought. In the bad motives condition, he helped her only because he hoped to have sex with her (okaaay ! these are not really bad motives, but they are not good ones either). Then, the agent could be conscious or unconscious of his motivations). In the conscious condition, the action and the motives were described without further precision. In the unconscious condition, it was said that the agent suffered of very low [high] self-esteem and (falsely) believed that he had helped his neighbor because he wanted to have sex [just wanted to help her].
Each participant read only one of the four scenarios, then had to rate on a scale whether the agent deserved praise for having helped his neighbor (on a scale from 0 = "not at all" to 7 = "absolutely"). The results are shown in the figure.

An ANOVA reveals that there is a significant effect of motives: unsurprisingly, people tend to attribute more praise in the good motives that in the bad motives condition. More surprisingly, there was no significant effect of consciousness. But there was a significant interaction between the two factors, since the effect of consciousness on ratings changed according to the valence of the motives.
Indeed, we can observe, that not being conscious of one's motives led to higher ratings in the bad motives condition but to lesser ratings in the good motives condition. These results cannot be explained by CS, that would predict that lack of consciousness would lead to decrease in moral responsibility in both cases. But my guess is that they can be explained by TS if we make the auxiliary hypothesis that people use consciousness and the agent's beliefs about his motives as a "clue" to what is the agent's "true self". So, in the bad motives condition, some subjects came to think that, if the agent believed he had good motives, he must have had good motives and gave higher rating (and the opposite in the good motives condition).
So, these results spell trouble for CS and for the idea that people's intuitions consider consciousness of one's motives as a condition for moral responsibility. Nevertheless, the link between consciousness and moral responsibility can rest on different rules. For example, we could have the following hypothesis :
- CS_2: People's intuitions follow the following rule : "an agent A is morally responsible for an action B only if A wasable to become conscious of the psychological states B has its source in.
To test for such possibility, it would be necessary to run a new version of this experiment, with, for example, an agent suffering from a mental disease making him incapable of becoming aware of his true motives. Nevertheless, I think that there's great chance for consciousness not being a necessary condition for moral responsibility (as long as our intuitions are concerned).
BONUS :
Participants receiving the unconscious condition also had to answer two more questions: ''Do you think it is possible not to be conscious of one's own motivations for acting?' and "Do you think it is possible to have desire one is not aware of?'. To the first question, 85% of participants answered YES, and 91% to the second question. Note that the experiment was run with participants recruited in the Quartier Latin in Paris, where psychoanalysis is still popular.
Commentaires
Thanks! A comment:
Florian:
I don't find the notion of "being conscious of a psychological state" so natural; that's requiring second-order states (a Frankfurt-like folk theory?). Why not simply:
Then you may take it (as is commonly done) that the operational criterion for "conscious" mental states is that people can report the state or its content. But that's not to say that it's essential to responsibility that one is conscious of one's own mental states.
@ Julien:
I totally endorse your proposition.
This affects a bit the experiment, at least in principle. The unconscious bad motive condition is described as follows:
Now is the man's desire conscious? There are two options:
On the simple CS view sketched above, people would count the agent as morally responsible in variant 1 but not 2. So it's not clear to me how unconscious is your unconscious condition.
I didn't get how TS predicted an asymmetry...
Comment 4:
Well, TS did not predict an asymmetry. It just can explain it, once we observed it. If we consider that some people consider that, if an agent is deeply confident in not having acted on motive A whereas he actually did, then there are chances that A isn't really part of his deep/true self.
Comment 3:
That's true ! So, I think the view this experiment rejected is rather something like :
And a follow-up experiment should predict that the agent is not only unconscious that he acted on the basis of mental state M but also that M was "not conscious" in itself.
re 5: Oh right now I got it, I didn't realize what the results were. I thought there was no difference between conscious and unconscious in the good motives case.
So to sum up:
But now I'm puzzled why CS can't explain the asymmetry. Straightforwardly and schematically:
Outcome: bad+conscious -2, bad+unconscious -1, good+unconscious +1, good+conscious +2.
Also an assymetrical explanation is available to CS: (1) in the bad cases it's as you say. (2) in the good+unconscious case, the action is neutral (no responsibility). But the guy gets bad points for consciously not inhibiting an ill-motivated action - since he's under the impression that he's acting for a bad motive.
Or have I again got the data wrong?
the fact that the guy is not conscious of his bad motivation lessen his responsibility. (As straightforwardly predicted)
You seem to assume that absence of responsibility is at the middle of the scale, but it's in fact at 0. I didn't use a scale with blame on one side and praise on the other, with status quo at the middle. The question was only whether the agent deserved praise, so I don't understand how you can have :
It should be -1
And this little note should be emphasized pretty much so.
Since I am a little bit sociologist, I can't resist to argue that experiments like these, as far as they can explain something of a philosophical problem, would be very much enriched if they would do a sociological analysis of the participants, of the whole questions/answers process and last but not least of the proper conditions of the experiments themselves. A sociological explanation of the whole experiments could probably explain a lot that is only noted here.
I give you a pathway to clear out my own intuition. I think freedom is not a metaphysical concept but a social conditioned concept that every agent experiences . I think it depends on wether and to the extent of the social agent is or is not socially free. I am not sure that these views are discussed as much as it could be analysed with respect the very point of the experiments done here, moral responsability and freedom in their relations with the feeling of consciousness. I must confess my disappointment that Analytical Philosophy, to which I have a great respect, do not take social sciences seriously. So we social scientists have to deal with Hegelian and Neo-Kantian Philosophers, if not Heideggerian or Post-Heideggerians, Gadamerians, Derridians, etc. That is a shame.
@ Anonyme 13, Comment 9:
Note that, as far as experimental philosophy is concerned, social and cultural factors have been considered. Sometimes, they seem t have an impact on intuitions about philosophical problems, sometimes they don't. Here is a short list of paper you might be willing to consult. First, the paper showing an effect of such factors :
But there are also domains in which intuitions seem to be "socio-cultura-proof" and indifferent to such factors :
Ok so I'll try again using your scale. 0 = no praise at all. 7 = absolutely praised. The idea is that: the change of points you get for something are lessen if that's something you're not responsible of.
The guy helps the neighbour: that's good, +4 points.
Outcome: bad+conscious 2, bad+unconscious 3, good+unconscious 5, good+conscious +6.
The alternative explanation I had in mind was that in the "good+unconscious", the guy gets bad points for not inhibiting bad motives. (I.e. as far as he knows he's letting bad motives take the better of him.) Maybe the best way to cash this out is in terms of a *double scorecard*. You get points for (a) what you en effect do, (b) how you manage your own desires. Consciously letting bad motives go is bad, consciously letting good motives go is good. We get:
(In this version the valence of the action itself is not affected by the motives; but you may imagine one where it is.)
Sorry for the poor syntax. At the beginning I meant:
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@ Anonyme 13, comment 10 :
I have taken a long time to reply to your comment, but there a lot of things in it I didn't understand.
I give you a pathway to clear out my own intuition. I think freedom is not a metaphysical concept
What do you mean by "metaphysical concept" ? Do you mean that the concept of freedom do not contain references to supra-natural entities, such as the ability to escape determinism, agent causation or things like that? In this case, many philosophers would agree with you. Just take Hobbes, Hume or Frankfurt: I don't think their conception of freedom are metaphysical in this meaning.
but a social conditioned concept
I don't understand either. Do you mean that we come to acquire the concept of freedom through social conditioning? In this case, the very same concept can be both metaphysical and socially conditioned? Think for example of the concept of "God". It seems a good example of socially conditioned concept (acquired through religion) that is also a metaphysical concept.
that every agent experiences or not.
What do you want to say? That we experience (or not) freedom or the concept of freedom?
I think it depends on wether and to the extent of the social agent is or is not socially free.
Well, if I take your proposition to mean feeling freedom (or not) depends on being socially free, I must say it's true (if other social agent coerce me to do things I don't want to do, I'm not socially free and then I won't feel free") but I will have to add that it's not sufficient. We can imagine agents that have gained a very high position in society (high salary, great political power) and thus is socially free because, say, he suffers from many addictions he'd like to be cured from. This agent would not be "free" nor feel freedom though he is socially free.
I am not sure that these views are discussed as much as it could be analysed with respect the very point of the experiments done here, moral responsability and freedom in their relations with the feeling of consciousness.
Well, the experiment did not bear on the feeling of consciousness, or the feeling of being free, but on the necessity to be conscious of one's motive for moral responsibility. I think it's better to distinguish all these kinds of "consciousness".
I must confess my disappointment that Analytical Philosophy, to which I have a great respect, do not take social sciences seriously. So we social scientists have to deal with Hegelian and Neo-Kantian Philosophers, if not Heideggerian or Post-Heideggerians, Gadamerians, Derridians, etc. That is a shame.
Well, there is a philosophy of social sciences within Analytical Philosophy. Maybe you don't know it well enough. For example :
http://www.amazon.fr/Blackwell-Guid...
Epistémologiquement, je dirais qu'il manque des pourcentages (de personnes) pour nuancer les moyennes obtenues.
Des gens (une minorité) peuvent avoir une intuition contraire aux autres. Si on bâtit une théorie en faisait des petites expériences qu'on assemble entre elles, on peut obtenir un résultat contradictoire :
Soient A, B et C trois énoncés tels que :
A, B et C soient contradictoires.
A et B soient cohérents entre eux, de même que A et C et aussi B et C.
Un tiers de la population pense A et B, un autre tiers A et C, et le dernier tiers B et C.
Avec votre méthode on obtient A, B et C et une théorie contradictoire.
Il est vrai qu'il serait difficile d'obtenir des informations plus précises que des moyennes séparées, puisque questionner plusieurs fois les mêmes personnes sur des questions différentes peut fausser les mesures.
Dans "votre méthode", j'ai supposé les personnes questionnées sur A, sur B et sur C.
Questionner sur "A et B", sur "A et C" et sur "B et C" donnerait des résultats négatifs dans les trois cas et donc que seulement une ou zéro proposition parmi A, B et C est juste, qui est différent et peut être aussi contradictoire.
Cependant peut-être que l'objectif de la philosophie morale expérimentale n'est pas d'établir une théorie de la morale qui serait "celle des gens" mais juste des données particulières, ce qui rendrait nul mes propos précédents utilisant de la logique. Mais dans ce cas-là, quelle différence avec de la sociologie ? Plus de valeurs du type "X % de la population pensent A, Y% pensent B", voire même des statistiques plus compliquées ne deviendraient-elles pas nécessaires ?
Quel est le rôle des expériences en philosophie morale ?
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